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Source link: http://archive.mises.org/8092/natural-disasters-it-turns-out-are-bad/

Natural Disasters, It Turns Out, Are Bad

May 7, 2008 by

It seems that we may never rid ourselves of the broken-window fallacy. it’s not only that disasters just have a silver lining: economists have long believed that natural disasters and wars are actually good for the economy! Until recently they have not made any attempt to empirically test their views. Now the good news. A recently published paper in Economic Inquiry by Cuaresma, Hlouskova, and Obersteiner brings the positive benefits of disasters into question. FULL ARTICLE

{ 113 comments }

Owen May 10, 2008 at 8:16 pm

Inquisitor:

Eating weath consists of consumption which is captured by GDP so you just proved my argument not yours.

An increase in consumption is strongly linked to living standards. Wealth less so. Wealth is useless unless it is CONSUMED. and GDP captured this consumption.

You would be right that if there was no disaster there would be different preferences of consumption BUT when a disaster increases GDP (which is the focus of this thread) then the greater economy bebefits through the multiplier effect. They can purchase 1.5 – 2 times the amount of desired goods they would have previously.

Unfortunately for you interest rates are controlled by reserve banks and in times of turmoil or disaster they are more likely to lower than raise interest rates so you are wrong there too. Man you are an expert in getting things wrong.

“We” do nothing? Stalemate, I love it! Almost like you are waving the white flag.

Mark and Yancy

Yes if you destroy wealth you destroy the ability to consume, hence GDP. But how then do you explain increases in GDP following disasters?

You also seem to think that (real) economists like disaster or war. They don’t. They simply acknowlede the fact that following natural disasters in developed countries GDP can often be raised as reconstruction efforts involve greater investment. The upshot of this is that because of the multiplier effect, the money spent on reconstruction is then spent on regular consumer and giving a kick-start to the economy.

You are also overestimating when and where GDP is raised following a disaster or war. In lebanon it is unlikely GDP will be raised because so much capital and wealtjh was lost, so too anywhere in Africa and in Europe soon after WW2.

However if you look at Japan 20 years after WW2 it had greatly increased it’s GDP partly as a result of reconstruction fuelling a general increase in economic activity.

I think you have no idea of the complexity of the economy and the effects that stimulus and activity can project into the future for many years. It all comes down to an injection of money capital into the economy – in Europe, Korea and Japan it came from the USA, in American natural disasters it is more likely to come from fiscal stimulus packages, insurance payouts and lowered federal interest rates.

newson May 10, 2008 at 11:40 pm

to owen:
gpd excludes intermediate goods!

to sort out your confusion, refer to reisman’s article on gdp (http://blog.mises.org/archives/007771.asp). he calls intermediate expenditure productive expenditure. here’s a teaser:

“Productive expenditure is expenditure for the purpose of making subsequent sales. It is the expenditures made by business firms in buying capital goods of all descriptions and in paying wages. Capital goods include machinery, materials, components, supplies, lighting, heating, and advertising. In contrast to productive expenditure, consumption expenditure is expenditure not for the purpose of making subsequent sales, but for any other purpose. In the terminology of contemporary economics, consumption expenditure is described as final expenditure.”

sean corrigan has a dig at gdp in this article (http://rnsa-bs.livejournal.com/76430.html).
a snippet:

“Here, at last, we come to the half-truth hidden in the familiar cliche, for the data with which we are so familiar are compiled, a la Maynard, in such a fashion that consumption is indeed 60 per cent of the aggregate — if only because the supposedly gross product in fact nets out the literally trillions of dollars of intermediate goods and services which are essential to the continued satisfaction of human needs and in whose delivery the majority of the population earn their own daily bread.”

you’ll find the bureau of economic analysis (bea) does include intermediate goods in its calculation of “gross output”, and that’s why it dwarfs gdp.

happy homework, and go easy on the keynes – it’s alice in wonderland stuff!

Owen May 11, 2008 at 12:13 am

newson:

I hate to break it to you but the price of a final good includes the cost of all intermediate goods used in it’s production.

This reisman sounds like he has never even read a macroeconomics book to say crazy stuff like that.

newson May 11, 2008 at 12:26 am

to owen:
right, so reisman’s crazy, corrigan’s crazy, i’m crazy – have you got anything intelligent to say about the bea? (your beloved government, remember).

Owen May 11, 2008 at 12:38 am

newson:

“The price of a final good includes the cost of all intermediate goods used in it’s production.

Because firms must sell goods at a profit to stay in business, the final goods price must necessarily include all the costs of bringing that good to market.”

Wow you are are still trying to assert something that a 15 year old high school student would be able to prove wrong.

newson May 11, 2008 at 2:11 am

to owen:
clearly you’ve not read, or not absorbed what reisman (whose book you can download from mises.org) says. i’ll give you another taste, because hope does spring eternal:

“The truth is that the great bulk of spending and income payments in the economic system is concealed under net investment! Net investment is analogous to an iceberg, nine-tenths of whose volume is concealed beneath the surface. Only in the case of net investment, what is concealed can easily be much more than nine-tenths.”

Owen May 11, 2008 at 3:23 am

newson:

That statement is wrong. GDP covers every every purchase made in the economy using money be it primary intermediary or by the final consumer.

Explain how it doesn’t – I have already explained how it does.

Inquisitor May 11, 2008 at 8:13 am

“Eating weath consists of consumption which is captured by GDP so you just proved my argument not yours.”

Owen, what does this have to do with anything? You’re jumping around pointlessly. The above response was to “you cannot eat wealth”, which is nonsense. You can, if it’s good.

“An increase in consumption is strongly linked to living standards. Wealth less so. Wealth is useless unless it is CONSUMED. and GDP captured this consumption.”

But wealth is the sum of economic goods in one’s command. So this is nonsense.

“You would be right that if there was no disaster there would be different preferences of consumption BUT when a disaster increases GDP (which is the focus of this thread) then the greater economy bebefits through the multiplier effect. They can purchase 1.5 – 2 times the amount of desired goods they would have previously.”

Also nonsense. The statement is of a comparative nature. No real “growth” has occured.

“Unfortunately for you interest rates are controlled by reserve banks and in times of turmoil or disaster they are more likely to lower than raise interest rates so you are wrong there too. Man you are an expert in getting things wrong.”

I am speaking purely in terms of real factors, not the artificial actions of state agents which might in fact worsen things further. Please stick to the topic at hand.

“”We” do nothing? Stalemate, I love it! Almost like you are waving the white flag.”

No, it means I do not associate with cretins.

Inquisitor May 11, 2008 at 8:43 am

“Also nonsense. The statement is of a comparative nature. No real “growth” has occured.”

-should be: “that wouldn’t have otherwise, if not in greater quantities.”

Inquisitor May 11, 2008 at 9:14 am

“That statement is wrong. GDP covers every every purchase made in the economy using money be it primary intermediary or by the final consumer.”

“ACCORDING TO contemporary economics, the value of a “final product,” i.e., a consumer good, such as a loaf of bread, counts not only itself but also the value of all the various “intermediate products,” i.e., the capital goods, that have directly or indirectly contributed to its production, such as flour and wheat. Contemporary economics further holds that because the value of the final product already counts the value of the intermediate products, it is a positive error to attempt to count the value of the so-called intermediate products separately from and in addition to the value of the final product. Such a procedure, it claims, constitutes “the error of double counting.”"

“Intermediate goods, which are used up in producing final goods and
services, such as the sugar in a candy bar or the energy used to
produce steel, are also not counted separately as part of GDP. They
are not counted separately because to do so would be to count them
twice, as the value of the final goods already includes the value of
the intermediate goods.”

“In opposition to this view, I will argue in what follows that the value of final products completely and utterly excludes the value of intermediate products, i.e., that it does not count their value at all, with the result that if GNP/GDP is to consist exclusively of the value of final products, as is held almost universally, then the value of intermediate products is not counted even once. And if that in fact turns out to be the case–as I will show indeed that it does–then GNP/GDP as presently conceived and calculated is not in fact a concept of gross product, but rather is almost entirely a concept of net product. In other words, I will show that what is today called gross national product or gross domestic product is in fact essentially net national product (NNP) or net domestic product (NDP).”

If you have a complaint, take it to Reisman or the various authors of economics textbooks he cites who disagree with you.

Inquisitor May 11, 2008 at 9:20 am

For anyone who’s wondering, the above is from Reisman’s article “The value of “final products” counts only itself: today’s gross product is net product” – the blog won’t let me link it. Just google it. Skousen’s “Beyond GDP: A Breakthrough in National Income Accounting ” is also worth reading.

Inquisitor May 11, 2008 at 9:30 am

*if it’s good = if it’s food

Owen May 11, 2008 at 6:54 pm

Inquisitor:

Eating wealth becoms consumption which is measured by GDP.

Your one-line answers didn’t actually succeed in saying much at all lest of all in opposition to mine. You have a problem with communication.

Then you resort to name-calling after it is quite obvious you have had you @#* handed to you on the multiplier issue. Sad.

The point you are sadly missing is that the monetary stimulus from the disaster has increased GDP. Monetary stimulus’ do that – funny huh?

Problem was with all your cutting and pasting in your final comment you missed out the amazing magical argument where intermediate goods are actually left out. So your post is meaningless. If anything you confirmed the assertion that GDP does include intermediary goods. Thanks.

Inquisitor May 11, 2008 at 7:22 pm

“Eating wealth becoms consumption which is measured by GDP.”

Which contradicts your prior contention.

“Your one-line answers didn’t actually succeed in saying much at all lest of all in opposition to mine. You have a problem with communication.”

You have a problem in comprehension. Remedy it.

“Then you resort to name-calling after it is quite obvious you have had you @#* handed to you on the multiplier issue. Sad.”

Where? When? In your imagination? Sad.

“The point you are sadly missing is that the monetary stimulus from the disaster has increased GDP. Monetary stimulus’ do that – funny huh?”

What “monetary stimulus” is it you’re speaking of? You are full of nonsense. The fallacy is to say a disaster is “good” for the economy because it increases wealth. It doesn’t, not relative to the economic activity that must now be forgone to cope with the disaster.

“Problem was with all your cutting and pasting in your final comment you missed out the amazing magical argument where intermediate goods are actually left out. So your post is meaningless. If anything you confirmed the assertion that GDP does include intermediary goods. Thanks.”

But it doesn’t. Read Reisman’s article. He disproves the assertion that it does therein. If you think he’s wrong, email him.

Inquisitor May 11, 2008 at 7:26 pm

Specifically, you contradict this contention here:

“Actually you are embarrasing yourself only. People cannot eat wealth. When they eat or are entertained or watch TV they consume. GDP measures this consumption. Wealth is of no material use to most people if it is not CONSUMED.”

Inquisitor May 11, 2008 at 7:36 pm

Wealth = economic goods in one’s command. That is all. They can be consumed, saved away etc. etc. If wealth diminishes, one has fewer goods at their disposal to consume, and conversely if it increases. This is the sense in which the term is used within Austrian economics. Hence to speak of wealth that cannot be eaten, as if it’s some abstract ethereal quantity is to speak nonsense.

Owen May 11, 2008 at 8:00 pm

Specifically what your infantile brain cannot comprehend Inquisitor is that once wealth is consumed it BECOMES consumption and the consumption is what it measured.

If wealth is consumed it is no longer wealth it is consumption.

Did you finish K12?

Inquisitor May 11, 2008 at 8:10 pm

“Specifically what your infantile brain cannot comprehend Inquisitor is that once wealth is consumed it BECOMES consumption and the consumption is what it measured.”

If wealth is consumed it is no longer wealth it is consumption.”

And as I said, increased wealth means increased economic goods under one’s control, hence increased consumption possibilities, both present and future. Why individuals should not care about this or why consumption matters independently of the stock of goods that make it possible is beyond me. You said people cannot eat wealth – but if what is wealth at one point is consumed at another, clearly they can. Your contrast was pointless.

“Did you finish K12?”

Did you learn how to count past 3?

Owen May 11, 2008 at 10:08 pm

Wealth is no good unless it is consumed. GDP measures this consumption.

Wealth measures something which is not related to living standard. GDP does so it is a superior measure.

Owen May 12, 2008 at 3:52 am

What Inquisitor and newson don’t understand is the simple concept that GDP measures consumption NOW and that consumption is the best proxy for standard of living.

Wealth represents POTENTIAL standard of living and is therefore necessarily a future oriented measure and is valid in it’s own right but this does not take away from GDP which measures a different thing – namely actual standard of living as opposed to potential.

People often want to know both – how we are NOW and how we could be in the future.

Seems that all those needless attacks on GDP have come to nothing then…

BTW i read that article on intermediate goods and it wass a hoot, best laugh I have had in ages. It is complete crap and totally wrong – I can’t believe it got published. I noticed it wasn’t published in a major economics journal but just a side one. If his critique actually held any water is would have been published in a much more prestigeous journal.

Ha ha – good laugh though!

Inquisitor May 12, 2008 at 8:00 am

Owen, repeat it ad nauseam, ad perpetuum. I bore of you. I am not the one contrasting wealth with GDP. You did it. I mentioned disasters cannot increase wealth – and they can’t, relative to a situation where the disaster had not occured. You then objected “but can one eat wealth?” They can, but so what? You did not refute my premise on its own grounds – rather, you threw in a red herring.

“BTW i read that article on intermediate goods and it wass a hoot, best laugh I have had in ages. It is complete crap and totally wrong – I can’t believe it got published. I noticed it wasn’t published in a major economics journal but just a side one. If his critique actually held any water is would have been published in a much more prestigeous journal.”

Then email him and refute it, if you dare. Refute it here, now. Demonstrate what is wrong with it, or the joke is on you, clown. Argumentum ad verecundiam will not save your trollish arse at this stage.

Dr. Mark Thornton May 12, 2008 at 9:22 am

OK People. Let’s get off this shouting and name-calling rant and get back to business. No one is learning anything from this.

newson May 12, 2008 at 10:24 am

to owen:
here’s gerry jackson (brookesnews.com) illustrating the pitfalls of gdp:

“But what matters is not GDP but total spending — especially spending between the stages of production. It looks like the Bureau of Economic Analysis is in sympathy with this approach. Taking 2000 as an example, GDP came in at about $13 trillion while the bureau’s figure for total economic output in terms of dollars came in at nearly $23 trillion, with business-to-business spending making up the difference. (My own estimate put total spending for 2000 at about $28 trillion). The BEA’s approach is in keeping with the Austrian view that what matters for the economy is total spending.”

your claim that gdp includes all intermediate steps seems to be wrong to the tune of $10 trillion for 2000. any thoughts?

newson May 12, 2008 at 10:52 am

to owen, from the us bureau of economics:

“Gross Output,” an annual measure of total spending at all stages. GO is defined as Intermediate Input plus GDP.
Intermediate Input represents the sale of all products in the natural resource, manufacturing, and wholesale markets. GDP represents the final retail market.

note that this gross output series only started in 2001, and that textbooks are written to a keynesian script, in large measure.

newson May 13, 2008 at 12:54 am

to owen:
actually, to cut you a bit of slack, reisman himself acknowledges that textbooks almost universally accept that the cost of the final good and service includes intermediate costs.

not that the textbook treatment makes it correct, as skousen points out here:
“Most students of economics are unaware of the fact that GDP was created by Simon Kuznets during World War II to quantify final aggregate demand according to the new economics of Keynes. As such, GDP ignores all intermediate spending in the economy, based on the tenuous argument that earlier stages of production constitute double counting.

newsob May 13, 2008 at 11:11 am

to owen:
another point made by skousen is that the retail input into leading indicator indices is minimal. the indices are essentially compiled from production numbers of various types, not retail.

in japan, there is no retail component of the leading indicators index. so gpd is again tacitly acknowledged as an inaccurate compass of the overall economy.

Owen May 16, 2008 at 12:57 am

Inquisitor:

What you fail to understand is that GDP can increase following a natural disaster.

As I did in the other thread I explained that when two or more intermediate goods are combined into the value of a final good such as a car, only the car has utility and use-value to society and not the component parts. Where a good only has use-value as a part of another final good then it has no use-value on its own so measuring the value of this part on its own is useless. It in fact has no value when considering it’s use-value.

GDP measures consumption which is by definition only goods or services that have a final use-value to the economy.

next, newson:

The $10 trillion is double-counting which is not a tenuous argument but is in fact understood and conceptually agreed with by 99% of all economics and business leaders.

GDP is necessarily an estimate. They do not go out and actually physically observe every sale to prove it happened. Production figures are a good proxy for final sales as are credit card and EFTPO card spending data, as are firm inventory levels. There are hundreds of measures that are triangulated to estimate GDP.

Owen May 16, 2008 at 1:15 am

Inquisitor:

Increases in GDp following a natural disaster do not necessarily cause an increase in wealth, I never stated they necessarily do.

What I did say is that wealth as a measure has benefits and LIMITATIONS. One of these limitations being that you cannot eat wealth. Wealth becomes consumption when it is consumed.

Material living standards are related to what we consume not what we have. Therefore GDP is a valid and often superior measure of living standards.

What would you rather have on a deserted island – a bag of gold or a bag of food?

One represents less wealth but more opportunity for consumption and therefore a better lifestyle (you won’t die of starvation). This is why the flurry of activity following a natural disaster can often temporarily raise living standards, because there is more money and good and services flowing around rather than people like inquisitor sitting on bags of gold professing their fabulous ‘wealth’.

fundamentalist May 16, 2008 at 8:26 am

Newson, Good points on the GDP. In addition, GDP includes state spending which is consumption, not production, while excluding the entire sector of the economy that deals with the resale of used goods such as used homes and cars, a far more valuable service than anything the state provides. But Kuznets, who was also a socialist, had to include state spending in the GDP or the statistics would prove Keynes wrong. But most people don’t want to see GDP grow because state spending has increased. That actually makes us poorer. And it gives the false impression that we can spend our way to prosperity. It’s a typical case of socialists framing the argument in such a way that they automatically win. If you use their GDP statistics, then you have to concede that Keynesian econ works most of the time. However, if you stripped state spending from GDP and added in all that Kuznets left out, Keynesian econ would be seen as the utter failure it is. WWII provides a perfect example. During the war, GDP rose dramatically, but the private sector shrank while state spending soared. Does any serious person really believe that war makes us wealthier?

Owen May 16, 2008 at 8:42 am

So I could sell my house back and forth between myself and my friend a thousand times and the country’s living standards would be better off by $300million?

Pull the other one!! ha ha

As for the state sector purchases not increasing prosperity (living standards measures in GDP) in the economy….so all those people that produced the goods for the state were not paid?

You will find that they were, and that they in turn went out and spend this money on what they wanted. The end result was an economy 50% larger than when the war started which did not shrink from then on.

Terrible result for American prosperity, Terrible.

Here we have the rest of the free world lamenting the late entry by the Americans into the War and the amount of money they made from the whole thing while the other countries were decimated.

And you (probably the only person in the world to do so) go and say the American economy didn’t benefit.

I have not stopped laughing yet!

newson May 16, 2008 at 11:02 am

owen says:
“Here we have the rest of the free world lamenting the late entry by the Americans into the War and the amount of money they made from the whole thing while the other countries were decimated.
And you (probably the only person in the world to do so) go and say the American economy didn’t benefit.

by inference, the us’ iraq adventure should be paying off big time. not that this has shown up in the us dollar chart, post 2003.

Owen May 16, 2008 at 11:09 am

Sorry newson, not by inference. Well, maybe in your mind though.

In the real world however, the Iraq escapade has significant differences to WW2:

- Before WW2 America did not have much industrial infrastructure, but afterwards this was heavily built up. In 2003 the USA was already a highly industrialised nation.

- Before WW2 the US Economy was in deep recession and had ooodles of excess capacity. Prior to the Iraq was the USA had jsut finished 50 years of almost constant growth and employment in the US Economy was not far below capacity.

These factors combine to mean that a government-fuelled monetary expansion in 1935 had far different outcomes than one conducted in 2003.

Try again.

newson May 16, 2008 at 11:23 am

owen says:
“when two or more intermediate goods are combined into the value of a final good such as a car, only the car has utility and use-value to society and not the component parts. Where a good only has use-value as a part of another final good then it has no use-value on its own so measuring the value of this part on its own is useless. It in fact has no value when considering it’s use-value.”

let me put it differently to you. imagine you’re studying medicine and have completed half your degree. is the fact that you have dedicated several years towards your final objective totally irrelevant? of course not, the time ,effort and money spent is real, in spite of the “product” having no current utility.

where do final products come from, if not from incomplete ones? inventories/unfinished goods don’t
ever disappear as a step from the industrial process, so it’s pointless saying they are counted when they are transformed into final goods. unfinished goods may never be transformed into final goods, in many cases. after the asian financial meltdown in the nineties, buildings remained half-finished and eventually rotted, incomplete industrial plants likewise. this waste was real, as must be recorded if sense is to be made of the macroeconomic picture.

to me, say’s law is probably the most intuitively simple law of economics. you have to go to university not to understand it.

Owen May 16, 2008 at 11:32 am

Education is a final good.

Building construction is a final good.

Both are included in GDP.

newson May 16, 2008 at 11:42 am

owen says:
“Before WW2 America did not have much industrial infrastructure, but afterwards this was heavily built up.

this makes no sense. how did america mobilize such formidable forces in order to beat the nazis, and at the same time, help stalin with arms? do you think bombers, artillery, submarines can just be willed into existence?

america was the world’s leading industrial nation post ww1. the excess capacity of the depression was due to the wealth-destroying policies promulgated by hoover, and especially roosevelt.

fixing of many prices and wages (in nominal terms) in climate of rising real value of money (deflation) means both goods and people were priced out of the market (empty factories and dole queues). anyone who was on a fixed income during the depression did very nicely.

america as the victor of ww2 enjoyed the fruits of bretton-woods. it was able to inflate domestically and have foreigners absorb dollars, without feeling the immediate pain of rising domestic prices. magic! that envious position is drawing to an end, though the chinese and asian central banks still insist on funding the american dream, through their warehousing of t-bonds.

Owen May 16, 2008 at 11:47 am

GDP is all about usability. To the extent that something is useful to society it should be included in GDP when it becomes useable.

If you believe half a medical education is useful then great – so do mainstream economists who include all education in GDP.

If a building is half-finished then how can it be used productively in the economy. If someone does want to use it as it is it becomes a final good and it thus counted.

You are arguing against a huge weight of convincing argument from 99% of economists…bu keep going, it is fun.

newson May 16, 2008 at 11:48 am

owen says:
“Education is a final good.
Building construction is a final good.
Both are included in GDP

half-finished degrees? half-constructed buildings?
what about fields of immature wheat? unfinished, but valueless?

Owen May 16, 2008 at 11:52 am

Newson:

I think you better bone up on your history. The US was not tiny before WW2 but due to the recession and other factors was operating at well below capacity.

There was huge economic mismanagement before the war.

It was precisely the production of all those weapons that stimulated the economy.

The production continued after the war with the $US loaned to Europe being spent back in the USA (you cannot spend $US in Europe except in oil).

Owen May 16, 2008 at 11:54 am

Yes, unfinished anything is valueless until someone comes along and………..buys it! And if they bought it for consumption it is includedi n GDP, if they bought it to further develop it for sale it is not.

This is easy. Can I have some more?

newson May 16, 2008 at 11:58 am

owen says:
“If a building is half-finished then how can it be used productively in the economy.

it can’t, but it still exists! and it still represents resources that have been committed. how can you argue that the money wasted should not be recorded in national accounts? wastage is a real phenomenon. i don’t need to appeal to 99% arguments to know this. waste happens!

newson May 16, 2008 at 12:07 pm

owen #1 says:
“Before WW2 America did not have much industrial infrastructure, but afterwards this was heavily built up.”

owen #2 says:
“The US was not tiny before WW2 but due to the recession and other factors was operating at well below capacity.”

will the real owen please stand up.

newson May 16, 2008 at 12:12 pm

owen says:
“There was huge economic mismanagement before the war.”

which owen are you? the owen that was so enamored of redistributive programmes, first massively introduced by roosevelt? who precisely was behind this mismanagement?

Owen May 16, 2008 at 12:16 pm

If you want a measurement system that rewards pointless wasted production that cannot even be sold then be my guest. For the rest of the free world there is GDP which only counts products once they become USEFUL.

You will find that those two statements regarding pre-WW2 USA were not contradictory. But to you they might because you seem to know little about the subject. The USA was already a large economy and already one of the biggest, if not THE biggest in the world, even though it was in the recession.

But this does not mean that it had the vast industrial infrastructure that exists in todays economy. WW2 weapons production was a big shot in the arm towards getting where it is today. The economy grew more in 20 years than in had in the previous 50, in large part because of the industrialisation that had flow-on effects for later peacetime goods.

Owen May 16, 2008 at 12:19 pm

Minimal redistribution has as much to do with big government as libertarianism.

newson May 16, 2008 at 9:46 pm

owen says:
“…weapons production was a big shot in the arm towards getting where it is today. The economy grew more in 20 years than in had in the previous 50, in large part because of the industrialisation that had flow-on effects for later peacetime goods.”

in fact that is the argument apologists use to rationalize both mao and stalin’s reign of terror – it was bad, but at least they industrialized their nations. doesn’t fly.

newson May 16, 2008 at 9:52 pm

owen says:
“There was huge economic mismanagement before the war.”

you’re being evasive. who exactly was responsible for the mismanagement? think about it – hoover and roosevelt – redistributionists both. how does this square with your logic?

newson May 16, 2008 at 11:43 pm

surely this, by owen, should win some prize from mises.org:

Minimal redistribution has as much to do with big government as libertarianism.”

Owen May 17, 2008 at 8:35 am

newson:

The argument was never put forward by anyone that wars were good. But that does not preclude them increasing GDP.

Accoring to the Austrian School of Economics: “In their view, the key cause of the Depression was the expansion of the money supply in the 1920s that lead to an unsustainable credit driven boom. In their view, the Federal Reserve, which was created in 1913, shoulders much of the blame.”

So you have your answer straight from the horses mouth. It was monetary expansion.

Other causes were:

1) retaliatory trade tarriffs effectively closing up international trade;

2) huge debt levels that were unsustainable

3) asset bubbles

So in general you are showng up your poor knowledge of economic theory and history.

Owen May 17, 2008 at 8:35 am

newson:

The argument was never put forward by anyone that wars were good. But that does not preclude them increasing GDP.

Accoring to the Austrian School of Economics: “In their view, the key cause of the Depression was the expansion of the money supply in the 1920s that lead to an unsustainable credit driven boom. In their view, the Federal Reserve, which was created in 1913, shoulders much of the blame.”

So you have your answer straight from the horses mouth. It was monetary expansion.

Other causes were:

1) retaliatory trade tarriffs effectively closing up international trade;

2) huge debt levels that were unsustainable

3) asset bubbles

So in general you are showng up your poor knowledge of economic theory and history.

TLWP Sam May 17, 2008 at 9:56 am

“no one ever argue war is good”? I wonder what U.S. Libertarians think what would be in place of the U.S.A. if the War of Independence hadn’t been fought?

But I s’pose it does depend on what end of the natural disaster your on as whether natural disaster is beneficial. The storms that appeared at the same time as the Mongols were going to invade Japan was good for the Japanese economy and bad for the Mongols. Construction companies who do repairs after a tornado strikes find them beneficial and, besides, should feel construction companies feel bad about getting work thanks to tornadoes (it’s as if any one can make tornadoes)? And what of a natural disaster that would wipe out bad sections of humanity leaving the good behind? Take the story of Noah’s Flood – if the non-Libertarian parts of the world suddenly died from a natural disaster and all the Libertarian didn’t – wouldn’t it be a boon for human existence what with everyone who is left over not using force&fraud and use a Capitalistic economy to live happily ever after?

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