Actual libertarian legal scholarship: N. Stephan Kinsella on “A Libertarian Defense of ‘Kelo’ and Limited Federal Power.”
Source link: http://archive.mises.org/3757/supremes-right-on-kelo/
Supremes Right on ‘Kelo’
Previous post: Mises or Orwell
Next post: The End (of the Sale) is Near



{ 24 comments }
He is correct that the minority got it right for the wrong reasons, but they may not have enumerated every reason.
I don’t know if I remember a dissent that began “We have no jurisdiction, but…”.
If the Supreme Court didn’t think it had jurisdiction, it would not have taken the case. It does this capriciously, as some states rights are occasionally outside of its expansionist crosshairs, or it would be inconvienient.
I also suspect that neither side argued jurisdiction. If the defense doesn’t say the Supreme Court doesn’t have jurisdiction, the justices aren’t likely to address it.
On my blog, I just posted that I’m not even bothering to describe the recent spate of decisions, nor would I insult Asses by the comparison.
In one sense, the very fact of writing any article commenting on the court is giving it more respect than it really deserves. I doubt there were very many articles saying various capricious dictators were doing the right things for the wrong reasons on the rare occasions it happened.
one reason to prefer ‘public’ use takings versus ‘private’ use takings is that (historically, anyway) the set of projects that fall under a ‘public’ use is much smaller than the set of projects that might be a ‘private’ use. Clearly there are fewer schools than office parks and strip malls, &c.
If I understand this article correctly, your constitution exists only to limit the power of your federal government.What is there to stop state government from enacting all kinds of authoritarian laws?
Mikey: I think that internal political conflict between the parties is one of the reasons. I will accept that every state has increased its level of authoritarianism over the years. However, the federal government, which is constitutionally more limited than states’ governments, has grown larger and faster. If anything, the growth of the feds has increased the rate of statism among the states (by a federal homogenization). Also, states have their own constitutions, so that could have also helped slow down the authoritarianism.
Mikey, you’re absolutely correct. Indeed such things did happen in the early days of America. States found that in order to compete with each other for trade and investment, they had to “liberalize” in the Austrian sense of the term. Protectionist trade barriers, for instance, caused trade to simply take a different route. The benefits of what is now called the “Laffer Curve” were well known.
The stated intent of the Constitution’s “Interstate Commerce Clause” was to make certain that no state erected barriers to people doing business with any other state, thus ensuring this competition.
However, one of the very real reasons for the institution of the Constitution over the Articles of Confederation is that there were vested interests who WANTED to prevent states from competing in the area of international trade.
There is a large body of work supporting the hypothesis that the Constitution was a successful counter-revolution by vested and moneyed interests who wanted to re-establish the merchantilist policies that the insurrection of 1776 threw out. One interesting detail is the number of signers of the Declaration of Independence who refused to have anything to do with this “Constitution” thing.
I found this page very enlightening:
http://www.etherzone.com/2004/sart121604.shtml
So… libertarians are constitutionalists? There is plenty in the Constitution for anarchocapitalists to view with horror. Just because something agrees with constitutionalism or federalism doesn’t mean it’s a libertarian view.
You can view abstract things like the constitution with horror, or look at utterly lawless areas like in some areas of Africa or South America, or even some inner cities here and see very concrete horror.
The Constitution was about as minimal a government for a large population and area and it worked for a while – though there were disputes from the beginning (another side of Thomas Wood’s history book and lectures show the lines weren’t clear even then). There was an error in the balance that allowed for some accretion of power, and then it inevitably accelerated, though I note it took a lot of blood (during the war between the states) to hold it together and the outcome was not foreordained.
Even so, if I remember right, the South didn’t propose amendments to move power toward the states – they didn’t want to dilute federal power for most of that period of history, I suspect they just wanted to wield it themselves or for their ends. They accepted a draconian fugitive slave law instead, and by the time it became evident they had to seceed, it turned into a war.
You can dream up fantasy Utopias, but there are plenty of areas of anarchy, as well as tin horn dictators in countries where a group might be enough to pay him to leave. Both are horrors now and don’t seem to spontaneously turn into anarchocapitalistic paradises.
Nor would I think such a society would last long – only until some dictator started to accrete power and the rest stood around minding their individual rights until the few free people that remained wouldn’t even be able to enforce them collectively if they could be persuaded to.
The market produces Microsofts and Wal-Marts – which ultimately limit my choices, but you will say that it is just the market and even if they engaged in monopolistic or anti-trust practices the market would still be able to fix it. But what happens if you apply this to those who supply violence or vandalism (security)?
When Acton noted the effect of power to tend toward corruption, he did not except market power.
I would also note libertarianism and anarchocapitalism are not identical.
A petitioner has just announced that he is filing to take Justice Souter’s house based on his eminent domain ruling!
http://www.menrohm.com/2005/06/hotel-to-be-built-on-land-owned-by.html
Mr. Kinsella makes a good argument regarding jurisdiction but does not pursue it to its conclusion. One of the fundamental flaws of our government was reserving power to interpret the constitution to the Nazgul.* There could be only one result from that choice.
Every jury, without exception, should be free, in fact instructed, to consider the constitutionality of the law being used to persecute the defendant. Today defense lawyers risk their careers, even jail, for even mentioning constitutional questions in front of jury. That is wrong. I am not a legal scholar, and I don’t have a fully formulated opinion on the proper role of the Nazgul, but I am quite sure that their role as final arbiter of the constitution is an improper usurpation of power.
Silver
*I am following Lew’s lead regarding the use of ridicule and humiliation.
Comparing SCOTUS to the Nazgul insults the Nazgul. The latter might be evil, but at least they are smart and have a goal.
There is more than enough to do with resolving conflicts of law and clarifying things. That was the original function of courts. Interpretation was more like application. Now it is like making things up based on a whim or a fad. Or change the meaning of words from what they meant when they were written.
The legislature will pass contradictory laws – which apply and when? What happens when technology changes (do piano rolls violate copyright?).
Duo: Some libertarians are Constitutionalists, yes, but many are not. The idea of state’s rights (for libertarians) is not principle-oriented, but more strategic or tactical, unless one wants to consistently implement the principle of decentralization even if that results in local authoritarian measures.
I think the jury is still out on this, but there is reason to believe that decentralization affords more opportunities for freedom than otherwise.
TZ: Of course libertarianism and anarcho-capitalism are not identical, but a lot depends upon how one defines “libertarian”. I think AC is the direct and logical result of following the libertarian non-aggression principle consistently in all areas, including the area of rights-protection.
What is there to stop state government from enacting all kinds of authoritarian laws?
As compared to what? The federal Constitution? The one that explicitly prohibited federal legislation except as to specific, enumerated areas, but was “reinterpreted” to allow it to wield any power whatsoever?
The better question is: what is there to stop the federal government from enacting all kids of authoritarian laws?
It sure as hell isn’t the federal Constitution.
Kinsella almost has it right.
Indeed, the U.S. government is not granted the power of eminent domain (except in very limited cases), but neither is such power prohibited to the states.
The fifth amendment clearly does apply to the states by way of the Supremacy Clause of Article VI Section 2, which reads:
The Supreme Court is given power to rule in such cases by Article III, Section 2
, which reads in part:
The Constitution is the supreme law of the land. The Federal government is granted the power to rule on that law. The fifth amendment, violations of which are triable by the Federal courts, clearly applies to the states by limiting their power to seize land.
The problem is not that the Federal courts have no jurisdiction to review state eminent domain exercises; it is that the states are not required to respect private property rights. One improvement is that proposed by LandRightsBill.com, viz. state constitutional amendments restricting eminent domain.
Dan Kurry is wrong and confused. First, he maintains that the 5th Amendment does apply to the States; then he claims States are not required to respect private property rights. This makes no sense. If the 5th does apply to the states, then they are, in fact, required to respect private property rights–at least to the limited extent required by the 5th amendment (they have to give due process, take only for a public use, and pay just compensation).
But Kurry is flat-out wrong that the 5th Amendment–by itself–applies to the states. The 5th Amendment and the other provisions of the Bill of Rights were added to the Constitution in 1791 to make it clear that the new central state did not have the power to violate the rights enumerated, or any others for that matter. The framers–both federalists and antifederalists alike–would have been horrified at the notion that the Bill of Rights was a grant of power to the feds instead of a limitation on the feds. Kurry is confused: he is reading a limit on the feds as a grant of power to the feds.
Anyone who knows anything about the Constitution knows that the Bill of Rights does not apply directly to the States and never did apply until the 14th Amendment. Now, some argue that it “incorporates” the Bill of Rights–through its due process clause, or through its privileges or immunities clause. But as many scholars have shown, the idea of “substantive due process” (the incorporation of rights listed in Bill of Rights into the due process clause of the 14th amendment) is ridiculous; and as I argued in my article, it is also untenable to maintain that “privileges or immunities” was meant to be so broad to include all the rights in the Bill of Rights.
Eva wrote:
My reply:
Your anti-intellectual response is sad. Maybe you don’t care if the federal government disregards limits placed on it in the Constitution, but I do, since I would prefer a limited government to an unlimited one.
Where, pray tell, does the Constitution authorize the federal courts to swoop down and meddle in state affairs in this manner? Where does it ever specify that a state law takign private property is a violation of the Constitution? The Fifth Amendment is a limit on federal power. This is uncontroverted. Only ignoramuses contend otherwise. The only possible argument that the limits of the Fifth Amendment apply not only to the feds, but to the states, is that the 14th Amendment “incorporates” the 5th amendment. In other words, you need to point to the 14th amendment to show this. Can you? I’ve looked. It ain’t there. Put up or shut up, how about?
You know, when I get tangible feedback that I am actually changing people’s minds, it’s pretty gratifying (to use a Borkism). I received a bunch of emails yesterday and today to this effect. Look, for example, at this post by Thomas Luongo:
And an email this morning from one Chuck Johnson:
More to come.
A comment–I noted the following to Walter Block and he suggested I add it to the article; it’s too late so let me put it here:
In my view, it’s intellectually dishonest to say that the feds do have jurisdiction under the Constitution. But I would respect, say, an Objectivist or libertarian who holds this view of Kelo:
“If I were on the court, I would rule as follows: no, the Court was not granted jurisdiction under the Constitution; but the Constitution is dead, and so is federalism. In this case all we can do is recognize we live in a Hobbesian world, where we can only hope to make ad hoc improvements in liberty. Therefore, I will vote to overturn the law solely for the sake of the victims here; even though I have no Constitutional authority to do it, and even though it helps push us in a more centralized direction and even though this power we are now seizing will no doubt be misused sometimes to make the wrong decisions and impose them on the nation as a whole. My fellow Justices don’t respect the Constitution, my fellow citizens don’t, even Connecticut does not respect its own constitution–so I’m damn well not going to be bound by it to tie my hands and prevent me from at least helping out the Kelos.”
In other words, if a given libertarian would prefer to be results-oriented and vote in favor of some individual victim’s liberty in a particular case, damn the consequences, fine; but he should not pretend this decision or reasoning is backed up by teh constitution. That is dishonest.
I will also mention here a quote from Bork’s book The Tempting of the Law–where he quotes from Robert Bolt’s play A Man for All Seasons. Not that I am a huge fan of “the rule of law,” or Bork for that matter, but there is something to this, that can help inform our debate here:
Stephan:
Thank you for your education on this topic. The key problem, as I see it is that most people (myself included) are ignorant of the evolution of federal and state law, and the balance of power between the two. Nearly everyone, (including myself) believes that the Supreme Court has the final say on all legal matters including matters over which the federal government has no jurisdiction. For instance, everyone is used to state death penalty cases being appealed to the Supreme Court. People may be disgruntled by Supreme Court decisions, but if everyone believes that the actually have the authority (when in fact a strict interpretation of the constitution would indicate that they should not), the only change that we are likely to see is the push to fill vacancies with judges who continue to make flawed rulings, but flawed rulings that the administration making the appointments like.
In a perfect world, we would hope that all legal decisions are logically consistent and just, and that courts do not overstep their jurisdiction. However, there are others who argue the “Stare Decesis” doctrine. In other words rulings should be based on precedent. -it is more important to have a predictable opinion (based on a flawed precedent) rather than having each case judged on its merits from first principles.
There is an old Scottish saying that says “Better to know the judge than to know the law”.
Someone else said that “laws are interpreted by judges and not by historical scholars.”
We can argue that income tax is unconstitutional on the grounds that it was not properly ratified as required by the constitution. However, only the crackpot would refuse to file or pay taxes on this basis. What would happen if the Supreme Court actually declared that income tax was unconstitutional, even if it was the correct legal decision, and ruled that all income taxes payment from World War I onward had to be refunded? How many ruling would be overturned if the Supreme Court went back and reinterpreted every case based on a strict fundamental basis. Does anyone seriously believe that this scenario could actually take place, or are we debating how many angels can dance on a pinhead? Or to put it in more vulgar terms, the turd has become too big to flush!
My favorite legal argument comes from King Charles the First who was summoned before the House of Commons to answer charges of treason.
I would know by what power I am called hither … I would know by what authority, I mean lawful; there are many unlawful authorities in the world; thieves and robbers by the high-ways … Remember, I am your King, your lawful King.
As we all remember, King Charles the First was beheaded!
PS. Are you going to post your legal analysis of the recent internet file sharing decision?
From the text of Amendment V, it seems reasonable to extend it to the states even without the 14th Amendment:
nor shall private property be taken for public use, without just compensation
There’s nothing in here constraining only the US. Regardless of how the Bill of Rights was intended, the text of this amendment is general.
The Constitution does, at times, constrain only states (Art. I, Sec. 9) or only the federal government (Amend. I). But the language in amendments 4, 5, and 6 is different from the language in art. I, sec. 9 or amend. I. This leads me to think that these amendments should be understood to do different things than either of those other parts.
In these amendments, the language is general: “no person”, “right of the people”, “in all criminal prosecutions”, etc. Because the Constitution is the supreme Law of the Land (art. VI, sec. 2), these amendments supercede the states. Hence, even without the 14th Amendment, New London would be violating the 5th Amendment by taking private property for private use.
I realise that this is not the historical understanding of the Bill of Rights, but it is one consistent with its text. As Justice Scalia loves to point out, legislative intent is mostly a myth. The text is not.
- Josh
Josh says:
The question is whether the Supreme Court is empowered to review and strike down state law. There is no doubt at all that the original Bill of Rights was not believed by anyone, or meant or intended, to limit the states. Certainly not to grant power to the feds; the Bill of Rights was just to limit the feds. Even the Supreme Court does not deny this; they needed the 14th to find an excuse to start regulating the states.
Consider. The fed gov’t is composed of 3 equal and independent branches. Each one has an independent obligation to respect the Constitution. The President has an obligation under his oath of office to refuse to execute unconstitutional federal laws (as Jefferson did in refusing to enforce the federal secition law). The Congress has an obligation not to enact unconstitutioanl legislation. The Court has an obligation not to enforce unconstitutional laws. To do this all the Court has to do is refuse to go along with it. It is part of the federal state. Its boycott of a law is an easy way for it to fulfill its oath of office.
But the Supreme Court is part of the federal government. It is not part of the states. It is not needed to enforce state law: states have their own courts and executives who do this. For the Supreme Court to strike down a state law, it can’t merely boycott it or “refuse to act”; in fact the states would love this. If the Supreme Court refuses to “enforce” a state law, that does not prevent the state’s own government from going ahead with it. So, to really strike down a state law, means the Supreme Court has to issue an order directing the agencies of that state not to do certain things; and this order is backed up by the military might of the United States.
Clearly this is an exercise of a power, and it must be enumerated in the Constitution. And it is NOT.
Further, it would also be wrong to say that the enumeration of a right in the Constitution implies a FEDERAL power to enforce it. Even if the 1st Amendment said, “Neither Congress nor the States shall make a law respecting the establishment of religion,” still, this would not give the federal courts power to strike it down. That would need a separate grant of power. Look at the 14th Amendment: it specifies what the states can’t do, THEN it gives Congress power to enforce it (not the courts, by the way). THe 14th itself implies that merely listing a limit or restriction on states does not in and of itself empower the federal gov’t or the courts to enforce this limitatation.
Further, consider the fact under JEfferson’s theory of concurrent review, each branch of federal governemnt has an equal and independent right to construe the Constitution. The Supreme Court is not superior in this respect; it is one of three. What this means is that on a horizontal level, all 3 federal branches have an equal authority to construe the Constitution.
On a vertical level, becuase of federalism (implied in the structure of the Constitution and the 10th amendment, e.g.) it is also easily arguable that states have an equal power with the feds to construe the Constitution. So if there is a limit on state action in the Constitution, then a state court, say, could use this as an excuse to refuse to enforce a state law (to strike it down). AGain, this requires the state court merely to abstain, to boycott the unconsttutional state action. But the fed courts are part of a federal governemnt which is one of enumerated powers. Not only would they need an enumerated power to even try to issue an order to the states based on a constitutional limitation on the states, there is no reason to think they are “more” competent or authorized at having the final say-so than the states are.
Just as the Supreme Court is no more of the “final say so” of what the Constitution says, with respect to, say, the President (which is why he has an obligation to refuse to execute an unconstituionla law even if Congress enacts it and the Courts bless it); so the federal branch (and its Supreme Court) is not the final say so with respect to state interpretation.
If the President and Supreme Court disagree on how to construe the Constitution, we might have a constitutional crisis. This possibility is inherent in having equal and independent branches of federal government. It is a risk thought to be worth having, in order to have the checks and balances that a tripartite division of government provides.
Similarly, if a state says it is not limited by a Constitutional provision, and the feds say they are–so what? There is no reason to think the federal interpretation of the Constitution has greater weight.
What this means is that the mere enumeration of a limit on state power, in the federal Constitution, even if it is explicit, does not in and of itself empower the feds to enforce their own construction of the limitation against the states; this conclusion is buttressed by the recognition that the vertical division of powers (federalism) in the Constitution implies that the states are equally capable of construing the Constitution with the states. And this is illustrated by the 14th amending having separate provisions for the limitation, and the power to enforce it.
The federal enumeration of a limit on States could be used, for example, by federal courts to chastise the states, while remaining powerless to do anything about it. It would be similar to a dissenting opinion–it criticizes the law that the majority refuses to strike down, without the criticism being efficacious at striking it down. And the provision could be used by state courts to strike down the state law. Just as the federal Constitution presupposes that individuals have rights against, say, murder, but assumes that states will have laws and police and enforcement mechanisms to vindicate and protect these rights, it is perfectly conceivable that the Constitution could presuppose that a federally enumerated limit on the States can be handled on the state level by the state’s own courts using it to strike the law down.
The recognition of a right, in sum, does not confer power to do anything about it–not in a government of enumerated powers.
Aside: My former law professor William Crawford makes a (mainstream) argument for the converse proposition here: Life on a Federal Island in the Civilian Sea, where he argues federal courts are “just as competent” at construing state law (when they need to) as are state courts. I don’t necessarily agree, but if this is so, certainly, it could be argued (even in mainstream fashion) that state courts are “just as competent” to construe federal constitutional provisions as are federal courts. This is a more of a legal view, than a political-constitutional one, but it supports my point above.
A few more comments on and interchanges regarding the original article:
Pete Hendrickson:
Herbert H. Blount, Jr., Esq.:
Karen Buckley:
Joseph Sugarman:
Chris writes:
Manuel Lora:
And another:
Clint Case:
Harry:
Scott Fields:
Mark Watson:
My reply to Mark: I don’t disagree with you. Even this decision was a usurpation, I agree, b/c they all agreed they had the jurisdiction, because of the erroneous understanding of the 14th. But I did not endorse their holding or reasoning. I only said that the Court should have refused to overturn the Connecticut law–on the grounds that they had no jurisdiction. If they had done this, it would have ameliorated many of your concerns, no? Mark’s response:
And yet a few more —
Dan Mahoney:
Anthony Gregory has a nice piece on Kelo, Why the Supreme Court Should Have Just Shut Up. As I told T-dog: “But of course, I agree with you. I never said Kelo was a good decision. I am
saying like you, that in my view they should have just stayed out of it–”shut up,” as you call it. Also–I am responding to libertarians who oppose the decision on the grounds that the Constitution requires them to overturn the Connecticut law.”
Not a comment on my book, but in Congressman Ron Paul’s latest article, he concludes:
Michael Gonsior:
Dr. Thomas M. Schmidt:
Laurence Vance:
Joe Johnson:
Rick Tucker:
I replied: I don’t disagree, but look. I am not saying the 5th is not incorporated b/c the 14th was not propertly ratified. I happen to think this is so; but it has become a de facto part of our constitutional landscape. So this argument would be futile. But I do think a Justice has an obligation to follow his oath of office, and the Constitution. The decision was not a good one, but if I were Justice, I would have voted to uphold the law (actually: not overturn the law) on the grounds we have no authority to overturn it.
What is the alteratnive? That the dissent should have won? And used and seized power they were never granted to overturn a state law? I dissent.
Rick responded:
[from anonymous]:
Barry Conner wrote:
I replied: “Thanks.All state takings are unjustifiable. All.”
Barry’s response:
Mike Holmes:
My reply: Sorry, I’m not quite sure what your point is. Are you saying the supreme court should have overturned the state eminent domain law? If so, are you saying they have constittuional authority to do this, or that you don’t care? If the former, where, exaclty, is this power found? Surely you don’t think it’s in the 5th amendment, do you? if it’s in the 14th, please point me to it, as I have looked but cannot find it. (See how you can actually coherently stick to the point, if you really try?)
Unfortunately, this response will be buried under Kinsella’s mail…
This Constitution, and the Laws of the United States which shall be made in Pursuance thereof; and all Treaties made, or which shall be made, under the Authority of the United States, shall be the supreme Law of the Land; and the Judges in every State shall be bound thereby, any Thing in the Constitution or Laws of any State to the Contrary notwithstanding. Art. VI, cl. 2.
The Constitution and the US’ pursuant laws are the supreme Law of the Land, superceding all state constitutions and state laws. What “supreme Law of the Land” means in practice has probably never been defined, but to me it certainly means that the US has the power to bind the states when the states act contrary to the Constitution. If the Congress can pass supreme law, the Executive Power certainly includes the authority to enforce that law. What would “supreme” mean if the US did not have the power to enforce?
We see that the federal government does have that power: the legislative, executive, and judicial power of the United States is in the federal government. And the United States is empowered to pass laws pursuant to the Constitution that are superior to the states.
Moreover,
…[The President] shall take Care that the Laws be faithfully executed… Art. II, sec. 3.
This isn’t an unlimited grant of power (see Youngstown Steel), but it does mean something. Since the Constitution is part of the supreme Law of the Land, it is a law that needs to be faithfully executed. If a state is violating the Constitution in its practices, say, by violating the right to probable cause for a warrant, that state isn’t faithfully executing the laws. The President must take care that the Fourth Amendment be faithfully executed. Since the Fourth Amendment is supreme over the actions of the state, the President has the power to shut down that state action. What else could “take Care” mean but to use the executive power?
Again, I realise this isn’t the historical interpretation of the Constitution, but it is consistent with its text.
You might think this means that the US could pass anything pursuant to the Constitution and enforce it on the states. And I would say that’s absolutely correct. The limited, enumerated powers deal only with subject matter; the power to enforce and adjudicate is wholly given.
As to phrases such as amend. XIV, sec. V, I think it just adds another avenue of enforcement through which the federal government may act. Congress can get in on the fun instead of leaving it all to the executive and judicial branches.
- Josh
Palmer v. Kinsella on Federalism–hnn Kelo thread (copy on my site in case this one is deleted by hnn)
Comments on this entry are closed.